Revs. 1:1

Diogenes (Calvin@clarityconnect.com)
Sat, 15 Feb 1997 16:06:25 -0500


James H. Cape wrote:
> 
> I have read some of the comments about Revelations 1:1 and come to
> conclude that there are some errors in some of your interpretations.
> First of all, the reveltion is about Jesus Christ not one given to
> Jesus Christ.
 
Consider, just a moment that the gospels are synoptic.  Mt 24, Mk 13, Lk
23 are all chapters that are dealing with Jesus revealing the things
that would come to pass within thier day...namely the destruction of the
temple (historic fact 70 AD).  Notice that the gospel of John has no
chapter that deals with this important prophetic promise. Why?  John has
an entire book related to the subject of "not one stone left upon
anohter that shall not be thrown down" - Revelation!

Question, Was Jesus speaking of the destruction of the temple in Matt.
24, Lk 21, Mk 13? And did it not take place in 70 AD exactly as he
said.....not one stone left upon another?  Yes verily, (Josephus)!

And so the prelude to the book of Revelation is "The revelation of Jesus
Christ", Not of His person but, "of the things that would shortly come
to pass" (the destruction of the temple).  Where did the MAN Christ
Jesus recieve such a revelation?........From God, as he did all things!
And why did Jesus Christ give it to His servants?  to show (as he did in
Mat. Mk. Lk.)*THINGS* which must shortly come to pass, and he sent and
signified (sign-a-fied) it by his angel (angelos - messenger) unto his
servant John.  

Just as he had given it to Mat. Mk. Lk. as they asked him about the
wonderful building of the temple, John also recieved it from the Lord
except it was by an angel in a
"sign-a- fied" way.(beasts and dragons and vials and trumpets)

This is the proper exegesis!