Was Dispensationalism

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Andy Gossett asked these questions:

> 1. What did people do before 1611, was there no word of God for them?
> 
> 2. What do you do if you don't speak English, is there no Word of God for you?
> 
> 3. Is all of the King James inspired, including the italicized words that
> were added for clarity?

1. The argument for the KJV isn't necessarily one of that particular
translation, but more for the use of what's called the Textus Receptus
(or the T.R. as it's often abbreviated).  The T.R. has been available
more-or-less forever.  Modern translations use the Nestle-Eland (hope I
got this right) or Majority texts.  Criticisms against these newer
texts tend to center on such scholasticly relevant material such as
accusations of ungodliness and even homosexuality of the text compilers.

2. Foreign translations of the T.R. are available.  Also, it's not
inconceivable to translate a KJV Bible into a non-English language.

3. Many KJV-only advocates do consider the entire text of the KJV to be
inspired, including the italicized words and even outright additions to
the text which aren't even in the T.R.

Richard Masoner