Revelation of John or Jesus?

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Hi all,

Someone, I forgot who due to mistakenly deleting the
post, said that God gave JOHN the Revelation, and that
"HIM" in Rev. 1:1 refers to John because the title of the
book mentions JOHN.


I quoted 

Rev 1:1  The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show 
unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and 
signified it by his angel unto his servant John:

I said that "HIM" (the one given the "revelation" cannot refer to the 
"angel" mentioned lower in Rev. 1:1 after the word "HIM" because the angel
must have been mentioned BEFORE the pronoun "HIM" was mentioned.  Grammar
simply says HIOM cannot be the angel.  

Someone else responded saying that HIM refers to John since JOHN is mentioned
before "HIM".  This is a great error since this person has taken the
TITLE of the Book, which is different in every version of the Bible, as being
an inspired part of the scripture.  Perhaps his Bible says: "The Revelation
of St. John the divine".  But whatever, it must have been titled
a title with the name of John mentioned in it.  Other versions simply
say "The Book of Revelation".  My point is that the TITLE is not an inspired
part of the Book.  "John" is no more mentioned before the word "HIM" in Rev 1:1
than "Cornelius" is!  MEN added that title including John's name.  I do not
think John would have called hiself "St. John the Divine".

So my arguments stands.  The pronoun HIM refers to Jesus Christ, to whom God
gave the "revelation" in order to give it to his servants the prophets
by wya of an angel.

This is the order from God to John:

1) God
2) Jesus Christ
3) Angel
4) John

If "HIM" was John then who are John's servants?  

Rev 1:1  The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave 
unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly 
come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto 
his servant John:

For the same person that "HIM" refers to is the same person that
"HIS" refers to when we read "HIS SERVANTS".

No, God gave the revelation to Jesus to give to His servants (compare
John 17:1-3 with Rev. 1:1) through the means of an angel.

The title which this brother felt was inspired scripture was a 
concoction of mankind and not included in the original inspirations
which John wrote down.

Some people mistakenly call it the Book of "Revelations".  Point is,
John never titled his letter anything.  Nothing was inspired in this 
book before the words found in Rev. 1:1.


-- 
In Christ,
Mike Blume
mfblume@ns.sympatico.ca
http://www3.ns.sympatico.ca/mfblume/mblume.htm