Judging

Harrell01@aol.com (Harrell01@aol.com)
Thu, 20 Feb 1997 03:37:30 -0500 (EST)


Timothy wrote:
> This is the real danger of using different translations. Mine
> reads: "...But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp
> authority over the man, but to be in silence."  Notice the
> word "the!"  This means a womans HUSBAND, PERIOD! 

I have to disagree here Bro. Tim....notice the scripture...

I Corinthians 11:3 "But I would have you know, that the head
of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman [is] the
man; and the head of Christ [is] God."

The "the" here is not referring to the husband, if it were, then it would 
infer that EVERY woman had a husband...and we already know this
not to be true. The head of EVERY woman is THE MAN, or MALE, 
just like the head of EVERY man is CHRIST...matters not it the man
is married to Christ or not (saved or not).


Someone else wrote:
>> A bishop must be blameless, a *husband* of one wife..."

How many bishops and deacons do we know that need to
be sat down because of this scripture. I'm going to throw out
another topic here...when someone gets a divorce on grounds
not justified in the bible, and remarried, does that person have
two wives/husbands??