Revelation to Jesus?

"Timothy Litteral" (brotim@gte.net)
Thu, 27 Feb 1997 04:27:49 -0500


Me B4:
> > I looked at the Greek on Rev. 1:1 and it is better
> > rendered: "The revelation of Jesus Christ that God gave
to
> > His to give to his servants..." which clears that
matter
> > IMHO.

 Rev. Blume:
> Agreed.  But what does that mean, in your mind?
 
Me:
The revelation (showing forth/manifestation) of Jesus
Christ that God (through His angle) gave to His
(possesive/God's) to give to his (God's) servants.  When it
says "gave to His" I think it means John who was God's
servant.  

Timothy Litteral
472 Grant St.
Marion Ohio 43302
trlitteral@usa.net
http://members.tripod.com/~trlitteral