Revelation to Jesus?

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Timothy Litteral wrote:

> Me:
> The revelation (showing forth/manifestation) of Jesus
> Christ that God (through His angle) gave to His
> (possesive/God's) to give to his (God's) servants.  When it
> says "gave to His" I think it means John who was God's
> servant.

It cannot be John to whom the revelation was given, since in grammar
when you read "The revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave to him"
you must already know a name when you read "HIM".  NEVER is grammar
used in the sense youa re saying.  For example, would you say, "The book
of Timothy Litteral which Richard gave to him to give to John" and
mean "JOHN" when you said "gave to him"?  No.  HIM must refer to a name 
already mentioned, otherwise the grammar is totally incorrect.  Therefore
HIM refers to Jesus Christ.

> 
> Timothy Litteral
> 472 Grant St.
> Marion Ohio 43302
> trlitteral@usa.net
> http://members.tripod.com/~trlitteral

-- 
In Christ,
Mike Blume
mfblume@ns.sympatico.ca
http://www3.ns.sympatico.ca/mfblume/mblume.htm