Revelation to Jesus?

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Rev. Blume:
> It cannot be John to whom the revelation was given, since
in grammar when you read "The revelation of Jesus Christ
which God gave to him"

Me:
Render this as "the revelation of Jesus Christ which God
gave to "His"" as it is in the Greek and it cannot be
Jesus.  The "His" refers to the "property" of God or to
that of Jesus and cannot be God.  Now one could say that
Jesus is God's rightfully, but then we read on and see that
the thing given to "His" was to then be given to "His"
servants.  It is John who gave to the servants making John
the "His" or the one "possesed" that is refered to.  IOW if
the "His" refered to was Jesus then He failed the stated
purpose in that He gave the revelation to John and then
John gave it to the rest of us, God's servants.  

Is Jesus God's servant?  Yes.  Is He the servant that gave
the revelation to God's SERVANTS (plural).  No, John did
that.

As I have said before and as John clearly states in the
beginning of the book, the revelation was given to him by
the Lord's ANGEL.
I know, the beast revealed things to him and the elder but
THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST, who and what Jesus is, was
given to him by the Lord's angel.

Timothy Litteral
472 Grant St.
Marion Ohio 43302
brotim@gte.net
http://members.tripod.com/~trlitteral