failed assignment?

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Bro. Jim Cape wrote

>   How can a person say that someone has failed something and declare
>their statement not to be true when, in all truth I have studied
>and I have read where some translators have literally lost their
>voice and some have lost their mind, permanently. 

I reply:

If you will notice carefully, you inserted a word in this second statement
that you did not include in the first.  That word is "some".  Your first
post left the impression that all men that had translated after the KJV had
lost their mind, which IS not true.  That is all I meant.  I didn't mean to
call you a liar, and if I did leave that impression, I apologize.

My point about the Old English and KJV still stands though.  There is no
scriptural basis for insisting that old english is divine, and there is no
reason to think that the KJV is the end all of translations.  I have said
numerous times that it is the best translation that we have, but it is by no
means perfect.  The italicized words that are supposedly added for
clarification (and are not part of the original scripture) at times take
away from the oneness message that we preach.  There are other instances
where the words translated in 1611 meant one thing then, but now mean
something else.

Again, sorry for any offense.

Humbly submitted,

Andy (still contending for the word and NOT a translation) Gossett