rebuttal

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Jerry Moon wrote:
> 
> >Date: Tue, 11 Mar 1997 06:25:23 -0700 Jim Cape Wrote:
> 
> >     In my ministry, every time, not two out of three, every time
> >there has been tongues and interpretation it has been in Old English.
> >Maybe, just maybe it might be different to Russians, Africans, French
> >Etc. Who knows? I know one thing, I know whom I have believed.
> 
> Is this in the Old English, or the revised Old English. Check out the
> original KJV before they modernized the language. (I'm not talking the NKJV
> either) It was almost non-understandable. When I've heard interpretation's,
> it's not been in the Old old English, but the newer, more modern Old
> English. But I've also heard it in our modern English.
> http://www.netjava.com/~moon
> moon@netjava.com
>                                                 Jerry Moon


  Brother Jerry, I have a 1611 KJV. It reads in  I Cor 14:27, " If any man speake
in an unknown tongue, let it be by two , or at the most by three, and that by course, 
and let one interprete."
  I know as a young saint I was puzzled at times when tongues were in old English,
and then at other times in modern English. Just my opinion, I believe the key word 
here is interpertation, not translation.
  My understanding of the gift of tongues is, God speaking through man- to man. The
Lord passes a perfect message through and imperfect vessel, therefore we sometimes
get a variation of language, ( personal expression ), unlike divine translation in 
which we get word for word exact.
   Just my opinion, I am certainly not a Greek or Hebrew scholar. Thank you.

      Your brother in Jesus Christ  Roger Evans