Baptism

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From: yhclifto <yhclifto@Oakland.edu>
Subject: Re: Baptism Question (fwd)
To: wcopes@communique.net, higher-fire@prairienet.org

 >             ************************************
 >
 > I have a question for you. Why is the word "be baptized" in Acts
 > 2:38 a third person imperative unlike the word "repent"? The third
 > person imperative DENOTES PERMISSION. Why was it used instead of
 > the 2nd person imperative? Also why is a word of permission used in
 > Acts 8:37 where Phillip says "thou mayest". THAT ALSO DENOTES
 > PERMISSION!!!!
 >
>             ***********************************

 CY> There are two questions here with very different answers.  In the
 CY> first place all imperatives are commands (so if a command denotes
 CY permission it is only in a limited sense.)

 CY> I am curious whose Greek grammar you are using because in my
 CY> grammar text book this imperative denotes a command to a large
 CY> number of people.

     It is not my Greek at all. <g>  It was a question that I was
asked by a Calvinist. I did not have an adequate answer at the time.
That has changed now. I intend to incorporate the various responses I
have received on this one into a single message and at the right time
fire it off.

     Thanks for your input. It is most valuable.

Walter Copes
The joy of the Lord is my strength
(wcopes@communique.net)
Walter L Copes