Question on Nicodemus

Rachel Ramos (rramos@acad1.sahs.uth.tmc.edu)
Wed, 17 Apr 96 09:06:57 CDT



>
>I personally don't think that John the Baptists experience while he was
>in his mother's womb was the same as what we all would call the Baptism of
>the Holy Ghost.  The reason being is that the Holy Ghost had not yet been
>given because Jesus was not yet glorified (lifted up on the cross).  I do
>believe that it was a special annointing of God upon John, tho.

That would make sense.  It means also, that the Jews must have been
familiar with the presence of God and the power of God such as when the
Spirit of prophecy came on them.   Not to the extent that we know it now,
though.
>

>I think, for those reason, the reaction of someone receiving the Holy Ghost
>now (by speaking in tongues) is significantly different then someone being
>filled with the Spirit in the OT (pre-crucifixion days).
>
>Bro. Tyler

That is some good insight, Bro. Tyler.  It is so beautiful the way the Lord
can be touched by our infirmities.  I was listening to someone on the radio
yesterday talk about how the Holy Ghost is sooo sensitive.  That means (for
ex.) if we hurt someone the Spirit is grieved in us and then we become
grieved.  Our spirit becomes meshed with His Spirit so that we feel what
the Spirit is feeling.  On the other hand, when we are kind to others, the
Spirit feels joy, thus we feel joy.  I thought it was really interesting.


-Rachel





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Rachel Ramos, Senior Support Specialist
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