Question on Nicodemus

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>>>>> "Tyler" == Tyler Nally <tnally@csci.csc.com> writes:

    Tyler> I think that before the Holy Ghost had been poured out on
    Tyler> Pentecost, the typical reaction to receiving the Spirit of
    Tyler> God (or being filled) was some manifestation of prophecy.
    Tyler> I see the Spirit as being the same but a little different
    Tyler> pre-crucifixion and post-crucifixion.  Anybody that was
    Tyler> moved on my the Spirit of God pre-crucifixion was
    Tyler> filled/touched on by the Spirit of God which hadn't
    Tyler> experienced human life and death (in the man of Jesus).
    Tyler> Post-crucifixion, anybody that's been moved/filled/touched
    Tyler> is being affected by the very Spirit of God that dwelt in a
    Tyler> human body, that was sinless, crucified for us, and died.
    Tyler> Prior to calvary, God had not experienced what it was like
    Tyler> to live (as a human) and have (human) feelings, be hungry,
    Tyler> be thirsty, be tired, be angry, etc.  God had not
    Tyler> experienced what it was like to be born, live, and die.
    Tyler> Those experiences of God somehow makes the OT filling of
    Tyler> the Spirit to the NT Baptism of the Holy Ghost different
    Tyler> and unique.

I think you are inverting cause and effect here, if such a
relationship even makes sense in such a context.  I believe that God
himself is atemporal -- outside of time, and not affected by it, but
rather in control of it, like apainter is in control of his canvas.

If God is atemporal, then it is meaningless to use temporal adverbs
when refering to Him.  Time affects humanity, not divinity.  It was
the human race that had not experienced God in the flesh, not the
other way around.

Just a fine point, but attributing temporality to God seems to me to
be a logical error that can lead to false conclusions.  Maybe I am
wrong... 

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