oikoumene

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>     The word "oikoumene" is used 15 times in the New Testament
>(Matthew 24:14; Luke 2:1; 4:5; 21:26; Acts 11:28; 17:6, 31; 17:31;
>24:5; Romans 10:18; Heb 1:6; 2:5; Rev 3:10; 12:9; 16:14). In the KJV
>it is consistently translated as "world." (Translation committee
>consisted of 48 scholars all who could speak, read, and write Greek.)

Yes, of course the 48 scholars translated the word 'oikoumene' world.  And
yes the translators could read and write (duh).  You have done a fine job
looking up the word, but you have either misunderstood or misrepresented why
the translators used general terms in place of all specific meanings of the
greek.  The answer I believe you already know is, they were *directed* to
find the most GENERIC term in their translation.  That was the reason for a
committee.  I'm not telling you anything you don't know.  You know the
reason as to why the scholars translated the KJV and how they were
instructed to find the *most common terms*.  The translators did not deal
with many words in thier specific form.  Did the translators deal with the
word love specifically?  You know that if they would have dealt with many
words in thier specific form they would have violated the foundation upon
which they translated.  =20

>     Vine,s says "OIKOUMENE, the inhabited earth (See Earth, No. 2) is
>used (a) of the whole inhabited world, Matthew 14:14; Luke 4:5; 21:26;
>Romans 10:18; Heb 1:6; Rev 3:10; 16:14; by metonymy of its inhabi-
>tants, Acts 17:31; Rev 12:9 (b) of the Roman Empire, the world as
>viewed by the swriter or speaker, Luke 2:1; Acts 11:28; 24:45; by
>metonymy, of its inhabitants, Acts 17:6; 19:27; (c) the inhabited
>world in a coming age, Hebrews 2:5.
>
Vines references are just as honorable as Strongs.  Vines is honest enough
to show the word OIKOUMENE is used as (a) of the whole inhabited world and
as (b) of the Roman Empire, the world as viewed by the writer or speaker.
If I couple Vines with Strongs then I can get a clearer understanding of the
word.

Furthermore, any good bible teacher would then ask.  Who is being addressed,
What is the issue, Where are they at, When was this happening, How does this
fit in the teaching and  The answers:=20

Those disciples standing looking at that Temple were being adressed
The destruction of the Temple in terms of 'not one stone left on another'
They are on the Mt of Olives
Before the temple was destroyed
Jesus came to do away with the sacrificial system
This generation shall not pass till ALL THESE THINGS BE FULFILLED.
(including the gospel should be preached in all the oikoumene)

>     Earth, No. 2 [OIKOUMENE]--the present participle, Passive Voice,
>of "oikeo," to dwellk inhabit, denotes the inhabited earth. It is
>translated "world" in every place where it has this significance, save
>in Luke 21:26, A.V., where it is translated "earth."=7F
>
>     In the light of the evidence I do not believe that your under-
>standing that the Gospel will be preached in all the world, meaning
>Roman Empire, is accurate. Had it been the 48 members of the KJV
>translating committee would have used the expression "Roman Empire."
>Yet we know that they did not do so. Thus the preaching of the Gospel
>is not JUST to the Roman Empire but to the inhabited world.
>
So the question still stands.  What is Paul speaking of then when he says in=
=20
Rom 10:18  But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into
all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.=20

The subject at hand is the preaching of the gospel.  Paul affirms it went
into all the earth and to the end of the world.  What is Paul saying?  Did
Paul say that the gospel had been heard in all the inhabitants of all the
globe? or in all the Roman Empire?  Which is it?  Sooner or later you will
have to make a determination as to what Romans 10:18 is speaking of.  If
Paul is writing concerning the oikoumene - entire inhabitants of the globe -
then Matthew 24:14 must be brought into view for it specifically tells us of
this event using the same word.  If Paul is speaking of the oikoumene -
Roman Empire -, then Matthew 24:14 remains to be brought into view for it
specifically tells us of this event using the same word.  You step out of
one hole only to fall into another. Or do you propose that the word means
one thing in one scripture and means another thing when it is found in
another scripture.  =20

The word aion is translated world, as is kosmos, but the inspired writer
chose oikoumene.  Which, although you are want to ignor Strongs altogether,
specifically means the Roman Empire. =20

Strongs #3625  oikoumene (oy-kou-men'-ay);

feminine participle present passive of 3611 (as noun, by implication of
1093); land, i.e. the (terrene part of the) globe; specifically, the Roman
empire:=20

KJV-- earth, world.

Strongs says *specifically*.  The word specifically means - limiting or
limited, precise, peculiar to or characteristic of something.

If you stay with Vines then we still have an inspired writer referencing the
gospel being preached in all the inhabited world.  Have it either way but
the fact remains.



He who sows is nothing but a sowing sower.