Trubulation

• Messages sorted by:[ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]

I do have many comments on your list that I may or may not get around to
making...There is so much to do...so little time...:)  

But I was wondering if you could please explain for me the following phrase
if you could.  I would like to better understand what you are saying by
possibly scriptures that facilitated this statement and possibly a basic
chronology that is yet to happen.
No real need to be overly exhaustive...just a basic understanding to help me
get a picture of what you are saying here...

Thanks,
Joe


>11) The death of Christ: Israel--guilty nationally, to be saved by it;

I direct that portion of the letter to Brother Copes who I BELEIVE is the
author of the above statement...the rest I direct to him and anyone else who
would desire to offer some insight...

Weren't ALL of those saved by the NEW covenant Jews for like...the first 7
years or so?  Wasnt the NEW covenant made to the Jew FIRST?   and aren't
they as free as anyone else to have experienced salvaton BY that covenant
from then to now...?

The main reason I ask this is that if there is one concept that I have never
been able to grasp....and I am well aware that this concept may not be at
ALL what you are espousing...but they are at least similar in the respect
that they seem to hold some "different" salvation for the Jews at some later
date....

That OTHER concept that I have never been able to grasp is the statement of
when God "Turns BACK to Isreal"...I have heard that all of my life...my
question usualy is When did God turn FROM Isreal? And in what way will he
turn BACK to them?

Just some questions...

Joe W. Chancellor
Spring Tx
browser@wt.net
http://web.wt.net/~darty/