History Lesson

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BroDave:
No original manuscripts have made it down to our time,

Me:
And upon exactly what do you base this ASSUMPTION?  You guys keep throwing
that out like it is a foregone, eyewitnessed, varifiable FACT.  What
*evidence* is there to support this claim of yours?

This is TWICE now I have asked you and Bro. Kirk to present it.  If all
*you* need is someone you don't know and whose credentials you have not
bothered to check to SAY so, that is the end of the story, but I would like
to know the EVIDENCE, other than their own "learned opinion" that lead them
to their conclusions.

I deleted the rest more or less unread.  Great screen door material from
what I did read though.  ;-)  It is a common *democratic* tactic:  If you
can't support your claims, throw a LOT of words at it with lots of quotes
from *experts*.  ;->

Two quick comments.  Josephus is a Helenization of a Hebrew name.  ;->  This
proves that the man was Helenized himself.  The passages you refer to only
show that though he KNEW and WROTE Greek, that because of his past religious
fanaticism, he was *fluent* in it.  It cracks me up to see you deny that the
Jews knew Greek while in the same sentence writing about this man's account
of how DIFFICULT a time the priest had of keeping even those who adhered to
their strict man made laws from using Greek in preference to their own
language...  Also, as is common on this list for some reason, I did NOT say
that they didn't speak Aramaic.  ;-)  I said that it was common for those
who did know how to write in those days to use the *common* language of
Greek since the Romans and most others surrounding the area ALSO spoke it
along with their native language.

With all of these straw men, I'd think Y'all were raising corn.  ;->

The next point is that *Iezues* WAS a transliteration of a name.  ;-)  It
means:  God made visible.  The supreme god of the Greeks was Zeus.  The term
Ie-Zeus was used to denote this otherwise invisible god when he took on his
natural manifestation.  Iezues would be the Greek transliteration of "God
with us" or Immanuel.

Can we stick to the foundational arguments?

1. What proof do you or anyone else have that we do NOT have the originals.

2. What proof do you or anyone else have that the Hebrews did NOT know the
first word of Greek, therefore, *could not possibly have written* the
original documents in Greek.

3. Even should you prove number two, what proof do you or anyone else have
that the original documents were not dictated on the spot to someone who
immediately translated them into various different languages including of
course Greek.

In short, what do you or anyone else have to make us believe that the
originals were written in Hebrew OTHER than the fact that *some* of the
people in that area spoke Hebrew/Aramaic?

Take care of these or I will totally disregard any further arguments as
insincere...

Also, can we keep this to a page or two per post?  It doesn't matter how
good your argument is if no one takes the TIME to read it.  ;-)

Timothy Litteral     trlitteral@usa.net
http://members.tripod.com/~trlitteral
Join my email list: "answers" via site

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