Holy Word

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The scribor, Bro Daniel Wellman, scribeth ...


> I have noticed more and more how many believe the word of God has been
> changed. I have heard from many that they believe there is no pure word
> of God. All of these debates about the original text and what this
> version or that version says. 
> 
> Many of the oneness have lost there faith believing the pure word of God
> does not exist. Has God lost his power to keep himself the same
> forevermore? This could only be done in the word. Jesus is the word.
> Where do most of you stand?

Welllllllll.....  I can tell you where I stand.  But I can't accurately
represent others as I'm not an authority on others.

To me, there's a difference between *The Word* (printed, like in a bible),
and *The Spirit of the Word* (that which moved on the Holy Men of old to
cause them to write *THE WORD* down.  I wrote about it recently here on
Higher-fire ... now found at ...

    http://www.higherfire.org/06-99/archive/0173.html

Basically, the *translated* word may have errors in it as the translators
were doing their job and translating the hebrew --to--> english or even
greek --to--> english.  Not many, mind you, not many at all ... but still
a few.  The scripture in question, in the above URL, 1 John 5:7 doesn't
appear in some translations of the bible (like Sis Doris's German Bible
over there in Augsberg Germany) ... but it does in the standard KJV.  If
the *translated word* was/is soooooooooo flawless, how can there be a 
scripture that's in one printed version but not the other.  Basically,
one has to realize that the printed word isn't anything more than a 
work of translation.  The KJV might be 99.9999% correct, but there is
still a few flaws in it.  Maybe other bibles don't measure up to even
that kind of percentage, on the other hand, maybe some do.  I don't know
for sure.

Whether the translation is correct or not, the thing that will always
be correct is *The Spirit of the Word*.  The concepts and principles 
that are supposedly captured in that book is what's important.

The pharisees brought a woman to Jesus who was guilty of adultery and
asked what Jesus "take" was on adultery.  They wanted to know if Jesus
was going to condemn her because of the act.  You know... where exactly
do you draw the line for sin, Jesus?  The OT gave us the law that says
she is guilty because she was in the very act of adultery and to that 
end we have the right to stone her to death.  Jesus in his ministry,
*fine tuned* that which the written OT law brought to the pharisees.
He clued them in on *The Spirit of the Law*.  He then said.... 

 Mt 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a 
         woman to lust after her hath committed adultery 
         with her already in his heart. 

Jesus fine tuned *adultery* from the explicit act of doing the nasty
deed ---to---> the very *thought* of doing the deed.  There's a big
difference between the *fine tuning* of Jesus and what the pharisees
perceived as adultery.  The pharisees completely missed *The Spirit
of the Word* in the scribings of the written law.  It didn't change
the law any.... they just missed the spirit by which the law was 
written.

I think that sometimes, the translators also miss *The Spirit of the
Word*.  To that end, as long as fallible man is translating ancient
manuscripts, and those fallible men aren't Holy Ghost filled saints
of God ... the translations will somehow fail.  They will somehow 
fall short.  They may be 99% right on target.  But they just won't
measure up to what the Spirit of the Lord was trying to say in 
each and every jot and tiddle of the word.

Bro Tyler
--
Bro Tyler Nally 
Owner Higher-Fire Oneness Apostolic E-mailing list
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