More questions on Mark

• Messages sorted by:[ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]

I thought this might interest you...

b-greek is a listserver on koine greek studies.

Warm Regards,

Bro. Williams
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-

>Date: Tue, 26 Sep 1995 07:59:12 -0400
>From: BibAnsMan@aol.com
>To: b-greek@virginia.edu
>Subject: Re: More questions on Mark
>X-UIDL: 812427241.221
>
>On 9-26-95 06:37:05 EDT Carl W. Conrad writes,
>
><<I don't have the tools for searching texts of EGW EIMI outside of John
>ready to hand, but I think it appears once (and perhaps in more than one
>gospel) in Jesus' response to Caiaphas at the Sanhedrin trial.>>
>
>I have studied "ego eimi" in the past and have found it fascinating.  "ego
>eimi" is never used without a predicate, prepositional phrase, or other
>implied parts from previous clauses by anyone except Jesus in the N.T.  I
>have made a thorough search several times using Logos Research System's logos
>2.0 program.  "ego eimi" appears 48 times in the New Testament.  It appears
>referring to Jesus without predicate, preposition, or implied modifiers in
>Matthew 14:27; 26:22, 25; Mark 6:50; 13:6; 14:62; Luke 21:8; 22:70; 24:39;
>John 4:26; 6:20; 8:24, 28, 58; 9:9; 13:19; 18:5, 6, 8.  Outside of these
>references there is always a prepositional phrase attached or a predicate
>except in the case of Acts 26:29 where there is clearly a carryover from the
>previous clause implied in Greek.
>
>I believe that in the vast majority of these references above, Jesus was
>declaring Himself to be the One in Exodus 3:14, "I am who I am."  At the very
>least, those who oppose this would have to admit that John and other writers
>come awfully close to heresy in the implications of "ego eimi" without the
>predicate.  Did they make a mistake?  I think not.  They meant to write "ego
>eimi" without the predicate in many constructions reminds one of Exodus 3:14.
> "ego eimi" is the equivalent Greek phrase to "YHWH" in the Old Testament.
>
>Interesting to note is the context of John's writings where Jesus constantly
>refers to Himself with "ego eimi" and a predicate in John 6:35, 41; 8:12, 18;
>10:7, 11; 11:25; 14:6; 15:1; Revelation 1:8, 17; 2:23; 21:6; 22:16.  Did
>anyone else in the entire Scriptures refer to Himself in this way?  No.  Only
>the One who says, "ego eimi" is able to speak of Himself in this way.
>
>Jim McGuire
>Professor at Logos Bible Institute
>13248 Roscoe Blvd.
>Sun Valley, CA  91352
>
>