MY Call? Shouldn't it be GOD'S Call?

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On Mon, 26 Oct 1998 03:32:44 -0600 tlwitness@juno.com (Jerry Welch)
writes:

>BOTTOM LINE:  Do those of you who believe in women preachers believe 
>that you would have been allowed to Preach/Pastor in a mixed 
>congregational setting in one of the Churches Paul started during the 
>time when Paul was there?

Yes.

>If that is what you believe, then I would say that you have an 
>incorrect interpretation, since the Bible does not contradict >itself.

You didn't answer the question.

>It was more important to Paul that the men 
>understand the issue and later explain it to their wives.  

Especially since women have a hard time listening to the preaching
because the children interrupt thier train of thought much of the time.

>Are you saying that you believe that this scripture is referring to 
>women addressing a congregation of men?

You didn't answer my question.

>Actually, it IS the same word: "an'-ayr", used as "men" in verse 4 and 
>"man" in verse 12.

In the Interlinear Bible it translates it as man.

>That's easy: Do you honestly believe that it is only telling HUSBANDS 
>to "life up holy hands everywhere"?
>
>And only WIVES that they must dress modestly?

No, because it says "men" and "women" in that part. 

>I have not claimed that this is limited to "church functions".  Matter 
>of fact, I have indeed said that if a woman set up a website for the 
>purpose of ministering to both men and women, it would fall in the 
>same prohibition...

Which shows your extreme view on the subject.

>Why does it talk about women adorning themselves in modest apparel?  
>The same reason; God wanted it there.
>Does it pertain DIRECTLY to the issue of women having spiritual 
>authority over men?  

You didn't answer my question.

>Actually, this verse puzzles me, even though it has nothing to do with 
>the issue we are talking about.

This is a bizarre statement, when the verse is right in 1 Tim.2. If it
puzzles you, how can you say it has nothing to do with what we are
discussing? You didn't answer this question either.

>Need I explain the difference between spiritual and political 
>positions?

Margaret Thatcher was a political figure.  When did she prophesy?

>My question is still unanswered; do you have an example of an Old 
>Testament Priest that was a woman?

No. Now answer me:  Who had more spiritual authority, Eli the priest or
Elijah the prophet?

>Again, if you have read my posts, I have no problem with women 
>prophesying, but I do have a problem with them PREACHING <snip> 
> which means to teach or minister to a mixed 
>gender congregation.

But Anna was *teaching* people that Jesus Christ was the Messiah, which
was a *new doctrine* BTW.

>I didn't say that women had no authority to SPEAK to men, but to have 
>spiritual authority OVER men.

Deborah prophesied it was time to go to battle leading them to do it and
you're saying she had no spiritual authority?

> And if they are equal, why are so many 
>women wanting the Call to Preach or Pastor?

Since tongues and interpretation is equal to prophecy, they are either
both wrong or both right.

>Speaking of, do you really believe that John taught that women could 
>teach, minister to or Pastor men?

Certainly.

>My challenge remains unanswered: I have yet to see proof of ONE woman 
>Priest in the Old Testament or ONE woman Preacher/Pastor in the New 
>Testament.

You have seen countless prophetesses.  Look up prophesying and
testifying.  They are not the same thing.  The woman who testified of
Jesus after He told her everything she ever did was not a prophetess.

>If you could sum up what you think I believe in two or three 
>lines, what would it be? 

 Jerry believes that women can prophesy in the Spirit, leading men to
battle but not have any spiritual authority.

And He did not or could not answer 4 out of 12 questions. 

Lynne Yohnk


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